Description

1. Question: During which phase of the cardiac cycle would you anticipate auscultation of an S3 or S4 heart sound?
2. Question: Where do S1 heart sounds correlate with the electrocardiographic waves?
3. Question: The point of maximal impulse (PMI) in a healthy adult is most often palpable at:
4. Question: Given stress test results with ST depression and concurrent chest discomfort, which is NOT a priority medical decision?
5. Question: Hearing a nasal “a” when the patient says “ee” indicates:
6. Question: Percussion of the thorax primarily helps to:
7. Question: In interstitial lung disease, diaphragmatic excursion typically shows:
8. Question: The large inspiration followed by a full forced exhalation on PFT is the:
9. Question: Symptoms of anxiety, tremor, palpitations and enlarged thyroid (goiter) most likely indicate:
10. Question: Typical exam signs of hyperthyroidism include:
11. Question: Which exam finding might be expected in Addison’s disease?
12. Question: Normal adult liver span on percussion in the right midclavicular line is:
13. Question: The correct order of abdominal exam for most accurate evaluation is:
14. Question: Which exam finding is NOT supportive of peritonitis from a perforated ulcer?
15. Question: Scrotal “full of worms” sensation suggests:
16. Question: Which sinus should be palpated for sinus pressure and congestion?
17. Question: Which lymph node finding is INCONSISTENT with lymphoma?
18. Question: The transparent gelatinous mass related to gas pneumopexy is found in which chamber?
19. Question: Covering one eye and bringing fingers into quadrants to test visual fields documents:
20. Question: For adolescent microcytic hypochromic anemia, initial labs to order are:
21. Question: Mediterranean descent with microcytic anemia and normal RDW should be evaluated with gel electrophoresis for:
22. Question: Macrocytic anemia evaluation should include:
23. Question: ESRD patient on dialysis—anticipated CBC finding is:
24. Question: Immediate evidence erythropoietin is working in ESRD anemia is:
25. Question: For angioedema, the body parts most commonly involved are:
26. Question: In acute Hepatitis A, the first immunoglobulin to rise is:
27. Question: One year after Hepatitis A, the immunoglobulin likely elevated is:
28. Question: Useful lab in diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus is:
29. Question: Sweat glands concentrated in palms and soles involved in thermoregulation are:
30. Question: Which feature is suspicious for melanoma?
31. Question: Which dermatologic lesion is precancerous due to prolonged UV-B exposure?
32. Question: Which ABCDE melanoma finding is suspicious?
33. Question: Clinical depression symptoms often reflect deficit in which neurotransmitter?
34. Question: To differentiate anxiety from hyperthyroidism, which lab should be ordered?
35. Question: An “awful taste” hallucination is which type?
36. Question: Most common co-diagnosis in patients with self-harm history is:
37. Question: Pain with reaching up and over to touch the opposite scapula suggests:
38. Question: Which is NOT common with temporomandibular joint disorder?
39. Question: Unequal shoulder height with lateral or rotary spinal curvature indicates:
40. Question: Abnormal sharp/dull sensation on the cheek implicates which cranial nerve?
41. Question: Best test for cranial nerve I assessment is:
42. Question: Identifying a familiar object by touch with eyes closed is:
43. Question: Impaired gag reflex suggests damage to which cranial nerve?
44. Question: Hematuria with RBC casts after streptococcal infection indicates:
45. Question: Which finding confirms pyelonephritis in addition to symptoms?
46. Question: Sensitive test to elicit confirmatory response in suspected pyelonephritis is:
47. Question: First assessment tool for early renal dysfunction from diabetes or hypertension is:
48. Question: Long-term untreated gonorrhea or chlamydia should be evaluated with:
49. Question: For dysfunctional uterine bleeding, the most common cause, the initial lab to order is:
50. Question: Which is NOT used to identify bacterial vaginosis?
51. Question: NYHA class for a patient symptomatic on activities of daily living but none at rest is:
52. Question: Priority intervention for new onset irregularly irregular rapid heart rate is:
53. Question: Exertional chest pressure relieved by rest without increased frequency indicates:
54. Question: Near-syncope in a patient with prior bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement should be evaluated for:
55. Question: Crackles that clear after coughing in a post-operative child suggest:
56. Question: For a 21-week pregnant patient after a fall, which test should be ordered?
57. Question: Post-operative appendectomy patient with dull percussion that clears with cough indicates:
58. Question: Which patient is most likely to complain of hemoptysis?
59. Question: Lab pattern of elevated TSH with low free T4 suggests which symptom?
60. Question: Severe exophthalmos is highest on the differential for which condition?
61. Question: Which sign suggests hyperthyroid crisis?
62. Question: Nonpitting periorbital edema with eyebrow thinning suggests:
63. Question: Which percussion finding raises suspicion for splenomegaly?
64. Question: Acanthosis nigricans is typically associated with which exam finding?
65. Question: Right upper quadrant pain worse with deep breathing and positive Murphy sign suggests:
66. Question: Which is NOT a non-pharmacologic aggravating factor for GERD?
67. Question: Floaters, flashes, and a curtain coming down indicate:
68. Question: Acute closed-angle glaucoma is most consistent with which finding?
69. Question: Weber test lateralizes to the right ear—what does this suggest?
70. Question: Heavy menses with irregular periods and severe cramping in an adolescent suggests:
71. Question: CBC in chronic alcoholism typically shows:
72. Question: Platelet count of 80,000 indicates:
73. Question: Which is NOT a potential cause of elevated white blood cell count?
74. Question: Enlarged anterior mediastinal mass in myasthenia gravis likely represents:
75. Question: Bee sting with facial swelling and difficulty breathing most commonly indicates:
76. Question: Well-managed HIV patient should have which CD4 count?
77. Question: Systemic lupus erythematosus is most commonly identified by which finding?
78. Question: Darkened velvety skin with skin tags suggests:
79. Question: Condyloma (genital warts) are caused by which organism?
80. Question: Dark brown round raised “stuck-on” lesion is most consistent with:
81. Question: Erythema around nasolabial folds with fine dandruff suggests:
82. Question: Mood cycles of euphoria followed by depression indicate:
83. Question: Post-major procedure despondency with stable vitals suggests:
84. Question: Hypervigilance and insistence on facing the door suggests:
85. Question: Fear of abandonment, intense relationships, and recurrent self-harm suggests:
86. Question: Claudication relieved by rest with hair loss on the tibia suggests which diagnosis and plan?
87. Question: Severe generalized edema including sacrum and abdomen is termed:
88. Question: Old CVA with documented paresthesia should show which exam finding?
89. Question: Tongue deviation to the left on protrusion indicates:
90. Question: Correct definition of transient ischemic attack is:
91. Question: Facial exam showing inability to move upper and lower face on one side suggests:
92. Question: Drowsy but responsive patient is best described as:
93. Question: Least likely bacteria to cause urinary tract infection is:
94. Question: Hypotension after calcium channel blocker overdose with renal injury suggests:
95. Question: Hemodialysis removes solutes primarily by which mechanism?
96. Question: Birth weight is expected to triple by what age?
97. Question: Tanner stage at which terminal pubic hair fully infills the pubic triangle is:
98. Question: In a migraine patient on propranolol and sumatriptan, which question is priority?
99. Question: Supraventricular tachycardia at rate 220 should be treated with which IV agent?
100. Question: In heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, which agent should be avoided?
101. Question: Safest beta blocker for a patient with severe COPD and coronary artery disease is:
102. Question: Lower extremity edema and constipation after starting amlodipine is due to which drug?
103. Question: Which asthma medication must never be used as monotherapy?
104. Question: First prescription for a new asthma diagnosis in a healthy young adult is:
105. Question: Status asthmaticus not responding to albuterol may require which IM agent?
106. Question: Which inhaled medication requires mouth rinsing to prevent thrush?
107. Question: Most common side effect of first-line type 2 diabetes medication is:
108. Question: Abrupt withdrawal causing hypotension and hypothermia suggests withdrawal from which drug?
109. Question: Consider adding a second oral agent for type 2 diabetes when A1C reaches:
110. Question: Type 2 diabetes medication that aids weight loss and glycemic control is:
111. Question: Most useful question to probe serious cause of gnawing abdominal pain is:
112. Question: Acute myelogenous leukemia patient at risk for tumor lysis syndrome should receive which agent?
113. Question: Crohn’s patient on natalizumab with flare should have which medication decision?
114. Question: Best treatment for uncomplicated UTI in patient with prior C. difficile infection is:
115. Question: Medication most likely to cause tinnitus is:
116. Question: Isotretinoin therapy requires adherence to which program?
117. Question: First-line outpatient antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia is:
118. Question: Penicillin G is especially considered for which organisms?
119. Question: Correct understanding of deep vein thrombosis anticoagulation therapy is:
120. Question: Dabigatran directly inhibits which clotting factor?
121. Question: Treatment of iron deficiency anemia should be augmented with which vitamin?
122. Question: Which medication class is typically used to manage long-term autoimmune disease?
123. Question: Isolated urticaria without airway compromise is best managed with:
124. Question: HIV management drug classes include which agents?
125. Question: Topical treatment for actinic keratosis includes which medication?
126. Question: Potency of topical corticosteroids is largely determined by which factor?
127. Question: Chronic rosacea treatment most appropriate is:
128. Question: First-line pharmacologic class for both PTSD and major depressive disorder is:
129. Question: Most common side effects of amitriptyline include:
130. Question: New lip-smacking movements after haloperidol require which management strategy?
131. Question: Best agent for acute muscle spasm from musculoskeletal strain is:
132. Question: Peripheral arterial disease with claudication may benefit from which medication?
133. Question: Most common non-life-threatening side effect of statins is:
134. Question: Firm contraindication for combined oral contraceptives is:
135. Question: Concept describing small dose differences causing serious adverse reactions is:
136. Question: Use of compression stockings exemplifies which type of diuresis?
137. Question: Which agent dilates the efferent arteriole and may increase creatinine?
138. Question: Lisinopril initiation requires monitoring of which potentially life-threatening lab value?
139. Question: Recommended treatment for confirmed gonorrhea with chlamydia is:
140. Question: Appropriate management of Crohn’s disease flare while on natalizumab is:
141. Question: Treatment options for type I hypersensitivity reactions may include which general approach?
142. Question: Determination of topical corticosteroid potency is largely based on what factor?
143. Question: For newly diagnosed diabetes with A1C 7.2, which first-line medication side effect should be counseled?
144. Question: A 35-year-old man diagnosed with bipolar disorder mentions to his PMHNP that he had felt a lump on his left testicle. He is concerned he has not had a physical exam in 10 years. What is the best action by the PMHNP?
145. Question: In observing the appearance of the patient with depression and a history of systemic lupus erythematosus, the PMHNP notices a lesion on the neck of the patient about the size of a pencil eraser, flush with the skin, uniformly colored, with discrete borders, and consistent texture. The PMHNP should:
146. Question: A 26-year-old man has been on an antipsychotic. He requires further titration for control of symptoms. Which of the following tests should be repeated?
147. Question: Your client Jamie asks you about a mole of her forearm. You refer her to dermatology. As an APRN, you recognize that cancerous moles can be detected on exam. Which of the following would not be of concern?
148. Question: Which of the following would be considered a risk factor for melanoma?
149. Question: Gloria is a 68-year-old female with a chronic history of severe anxiety disorder presents with mild shortness of breath, fine crackles in the right lower lobe with auscultation and a nonproductive cough. She recently “ran out of pills”. Which medication omission most likely lead to her current presenting symptoms?
150. Question: A mother of a teenage boy is unable to acknowledge that her son’s mental illness is perpetuated by his poly substance use disorder and is insisting that his father’s genes are to blame. Which defense mechanism is employed?